Quiz 6

Neurological Questions

Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?

A) Optic nerve
B) Oculomotor nerve
C) Trochlear nerve
D) Trigeminal nerve

Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating balance and coordination?

A) Cerebellum
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Thalamus
D) Pons

The Babinski reflex is indicative of dysfunction in which part of the nervous system?

A) Central nervous system
B) Peripheral nervous system
C) Autonomic nervous system
D) Enteric nervous system

What does an abnormal Romberg test suggest?

A) Cerebellar ataxia
B) Nystagmus
C) Migraine
D) Seizure disorder

Which cranial nerve is tested with a tongue protrusion?

A) Hypoglossal nerve
B) Glossopharyngeal nerve
C) Facial nerve
D) Vagus nerve

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale used to assess?

A) Level of consciousness
B) Pain threshold
C) Reflexes
D) Muscle strength

Which neurotransmitter is most closely associated with Parkinson’s disease?

A) Dopamine
B) Serotonin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Norepinephrine

What is the main function of the myelin sheath in neurons?

A) To increase the speed of nerve impulses
B) To store neurotransmitters
C) To support blood supply
D) To protect the cell body

Which of the following is a classic sign of a stroke?

A) Sudden weakness on one side of the body
B) Gradual loss of vision
C) Chronic headache
D) Loss of sensation in both legs

Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial expression?

A) Facial nerve
B) Vagus nerve
C) Hypoglossal nerve
D) Accessory nerve

Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for language comprehension?

A) Wernicke's area
B) Broca's area
C) Hippocampus
D) Amygdala

Which condition is characterized by recurrent seizures?

A) Epilepsy
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Parkinson's disease
D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

What is the term for a sudden, transient loss of consciousness?

A) Syncope
B) Aura
C) Coma
D) Delirium

Which test is commonly used to evaluate electrical activity in the brain?

A) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
B) Electromyogram (EMG)
C) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
D) Positron emission tomography (PET)

Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing and balance?

A) Vestibulocochlear nerve
B) Trigeminal nerve
C) Accessory nerve
D) Oculomotor nerve

What is the most common symptom of meningitis?

A) Severe headache
B) Muscle weakness
C) Chest pain
D) Fever and joint pain

Which neurological disorder involves the degeneration of motor neurons, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy?

A) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
B) Huntington’s disease
C) Guillain-Barré syndrome
D) Myasthenia gravis

What is the name of the nerve root disorder that causes sharp pain along a nerve pathway, often affecting the lower back and legs?

A) Sciatica
B) Radiculopathy
C) Neuropathy
D) Plexopathy

Which of the following is an early sign of Alzheimer's disease?

A) Memory loss
B) Visual hallucinations
C) Tremors
D) Numbness in extremities

Which part of the brain is primarily affected in Parkinson’s disease?

A) Substantia nigra
B) Hippocampus
C) Prefrontal cortex
D) Occipital lobe

Which type of stroke is caused by a blockage in an artery?

A) Ischemic stroke
B) Hemorrhagic stroke
C) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
D) Embolic stroke

Which of the following is a key feature of multiple sclerosis?

A) Demyelination
B) Synaptic pruning
C) Loss of acetylcholine
D) Cerebral edema

What is the function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

A) Protects and cushions the brain and spinal cord
B) Facilitates blood flow to the brain
C) Transports neurotransmitters
D) Regulates body temperature

Which cranial nerve is tested by asking the patient to shrug their shoulders against resistance?

A) Accessory nerve
B) Hypoglossal nerve
C) Trigeminal nerve
D) Facial nerve

Which condition is characterized by progressive muscle weakness and is commonly associated with autoimmune activity?

A) Myasthenia gravis
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome
C) Huntington's disease
D) Muscular dystrophy

Which test is used to assess motor function, balance, and coordination in a neurological exam?

A) Finger-to-nose test
B) Weber test
C) Mini-mental state exam (MMSE)
D) Gait test

Which disorder is caused by the destruction of the dopamine-producing neurons in the brain?

A) Parkinson’s disease
B) Alzheimer’s disease
C) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
D) Multiple sclerosis

What is the primary neurotransmitter affected in Alzheimer's disease?

A) Acetylcholine
B) Dopamine
C) Serotonin
D) GABA

Which imaging technique is most commonly used to detect structural abnormalities in the brain?

A) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
B) Functional MRI (fMRI)
C) Electroencephalography (EEG)
D) Positron emission tomography (PET)

What is the term for the loss of ability to recognize objects, faces, or sounds despite intact sensory function?

A) Agnosia
B) Aphasia
C) Apraxia
D) Ataxia

Which type of headache is commonly associated with visual disturbances like aura?

A) Migraine
B) Cluster headache
C) Tension headache
D) Sinus headache

Which test assesses reflexes by tapping the patellar tendon?

A) Knee jerk reflex
B) Achilles reflex
C) Biceps reflex
D) Babinski reflex

Which neurological disorder involves the immune system attacking the myelin sheath around nerves?

A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Myasthenia gravis
C) Parkinson’s disease
D) Alzheimer’s disease

What is the term for abnormal sensations, such as tingling or numbness, often described as “pins and needles”?

A) Paresthesia
B) Dysesthesia
C) Neuralgia
D) Allodynia

Which cranial nerve controls the lateral movement of the eye?

A) Abducens nerve
B) Optic nerve
C) Trochlear nerve
D) Oculomotor nerve

Which sign is considered an indicator of increased intracranial pressure?

A) Papilledema
B) Bradycardia
C) Dilated pupils
D) Nystagmus

What type of brain injury is caused by a direct blow to the head, leading to temporary loss of brain function?

A) Concussion
B) Contusion
C) Hematoma
D) Cerebral edema

Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for the sense of smell?

A) Olfactory nerve
B) Optic nerve
C) Vagus nerve
D) Trigeminal nerve

What is the condition characterized by inflammation of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord?

A) Meningitis
B) Encephalitis
C) Hydrocephalus
D) Cerebral palsy

Which brain structure is responsible for regulating autonomic functions such as heart rate and blood pressure?

A) Medulla oblongata
B) Cerebellum
C) Hypothalamus
D) Pons

Which of the following is used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness?

A) Glasgow Coma Scale
B) Babinski reflex
C) Mini-mental state exam
D) Romberg test

What is the most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A) Ruptured aneurysm
B) Head trauma
C) Arteriovenous malformation
D) Cerebral thrombosis

Which condition is characterized by progressive cognitive decline and the presence of neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques in the brain?

A) Alzheimer’s disease
B) Huntington’s disease
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D) Vascular dementia

Which cranial nerve is tested by shining a light into the patient’s eyes and observing pupil constriction?

A) Optic nerve
B) Oculomotor nerve
C) Trochlear nerve
D) Abducens nerve

Which condition is characterized by inflammation of the facial nerve, causing muscle weakness or paralysis on one side of the face?

A) Bell's palsy
B) Trigeminal neuralgia
C) Hemifacial spasm
D) Ramsay Hunt syndrome

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing a stroke?

A) Hypertension
B) Low cholesterol
C) High calcium intake
D) Hyperthyroidism

What is the condition called when the brain's ability to process sensory input is impaired, causing difficulty in identifying objects through touch?

A) Astereognosis
B) Agnosia
C) Agraphia
D) Apraxia

Which nerve is involved in the sensation of taste for the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

A) Facial nerve
B) Glossopharyngeal nerve
C) Trigeminal nerve
D) Vagus nerve

What is the term for involuntary, repetitive, and rapid muscle movements?

A) Myoclonus
B) Fasciculation
C) Dystonia
D) Tremor

Which area of the brain is responsible for processing visual information?

A) Occipital lobe
B) Temporal lobe
C) Parietal lobe
D) Frontal lobe

Which of the following is the correct sequence for auscultating breath sounds?

A) Posterior to anterior
B) Lateral to posterior
C) Anterior to lateral
D) Posterior to lateral

Which lung sound is commonly associated with asthma?

A) Wheezing
B) Crackles
C) Rhonchi
D) Stridor

What is the expected sound when percussing normal lung tissue?

A) Resonance
B) Dullness
C) Hyperresonance
D) Tympany

Which cardiac valve is auscultated at the left midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space?

A) Mitral valve
B) Aortic valve
C) Tricuspid valve
D) Pulmonic valve

Which heart sound is produced by the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves?

A) S1
B) S2
C) S3
D) S4

What is the significance of a positive jugular vein distention (JVD) assessment?

A) Right-sided heart failure
B) Left-sided heart failure
C) Pericarditis
D) Myocardial infarction

Which peripheral pulse is palpated behind the medial malleolus of the ankle?

A) Posterior tibial pulse
B) Dorsalis pedis pulse
C) Femoral pulse
D) Popliteal pulse

Which condition is characterized by a buildup of plaque in the arterial walls, leading to reduced blood flow?

A) Atherosclerosis
B) Aneurysm
C) Varicose veins
D) Deep vein thrombosis

Which test is commonly used to assess for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A) Homan’s sign
B) Allen’s test
C) Capillary refill test
D) Ankle-brachial index

What musculoskeletal test is used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A) Phalen’s test
B) Tinel’s test
C) McMurray test
D) Drop arm test

Which spinal curvature is commonly seen in pregnant women?

A) Lordosis
B) Kyphosis
C) Scoliosis
D) Spinal stenosis

What is the condition characterized by bone density loss, increasing the risk of fractures?

A) Osteoporosis
B) Osteoarthritis
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Paget’s disease

Which joint is assessed using the Drawer test for instability?

A) Knee
B) Shoulder
C) Hip
D) Elbow

Which condition is characterized by chronic joint inflammation and pain, affecting multiple joints symmetrically?

A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Osteoarthritis
C) Gout
D) Bursitis

What is the correct term for a bone fracture where the bone is shattered into multiple pieces?

A) Comminuted fracture
B) Greenstick fracture
C) Spiral fracture
D) Simple fracture

Which type of arthritis is caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints?

A) Gout
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Psoriatic arthritis

Which muscle group is responsible for extending the knee?

A) Quadriceps
B) Hamstrings
C) Gastrocnemius
D) Gluteus maximus

Which type of muscle contraction involves lengthening of the muscle while contracting?

A) Eccentric contraction
B) Concentric contraction
C) Isometric contraction
D) Isokinetic contraction

Which reflex is commonly tested by tapping the Achilles tendon?

A) Ankle jerk reflex
B) Knee jerk reflex
C) Babinski reflex
D) Biceps reflex

Which area of the body is typically affected by sciatica?

A) Lower back and leg
B) Neck and shoulder
C) Upper arm and elbow
D) Wrist and fingers

Which condition is associated with inflammation of the fluid-filled sacs that cushion joints?

A) Bursitis
B) Tendonitis
C) Synovitis
D) Osteomyelitis

What is the most common type of joint in the human body?

A) Synovial joints
B) Fibrous joints
C) Cartilaginous joints
D) Immovable joints

Which part of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body?

A) Right atrium
B) Left atrium
C) Right ventricle
D) Left ventricle

Which diagnostic tool is used to visualize the electrical activity of the heart?

A) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
B) Echocardiogram
C) Cardiac catheterization
D) Chest X-ray

What is the term used to describe abnormal heart rhythms?

A) Arrhythmias
B) Heart murmurs
C) Tachycardia
D) Bradycardia

Which condition refers to the thickening and hardening of the arterial walls?

A) Arteriosclerosis
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Varicose veins
D) Deep vein thrombosis

Which heart sound is associated with heart failure and heard as a low-pitched, early diastolic sound?

A) S3
B) S1
C) S2
D) S4

Which area of the chest is auscultated to hear the aortic valve?

A) Right second intercostal space
B) Left second intercostal space
C) Left fourth intercostal space
D) Right fifth intercostal space

Which is a common emotional reaction to a terminal illness diagnosis?

A) Denial
B) Acceptance
C) Joy
D) Curiosity

Which stage of grief involves feelings of hopelessness and intense sadness?

A) Depression
B) Anger
C) Bargaining
D) Denial

Which valve prevents backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium?

A) Mitral valve
B) Aortic valve
C) Pulmonary valve
D) Tricuspid valve

Which condition involves the weakening and bulging of a blood vessel wall?

A) Aneurysm
B) Thrombosis
C) Embolism
D) Varicose veins

What is the normal resting heart rate for an adult?

A) 60-100 beats per minute
B) 40-60 beats per minute
C) 100-120 beats per minute
D) 120-140 beats per minute

Which vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?

A) Pulmonary veins
B) Pulmonary artery
C) Aorta
D) Superior vena cava

Which abnormal spinal curvature is characterized by an exaggerated forward rounding of the upper back?

A) Kyphosis
B) Lordosis
C) Scoliosis
D) Spina bifida

Which type of joint movement involves moving a limb away from the midline of the body?

A) Abduction
B) Adduction
C) Flexion
D) Extension

Which muscle is primarily responsible for breathing by contracting and relaxing?

A) Diaphragm
B) Intercostal muscles
C) Pectoralis major
D) Latissimus dorsi

Which is the primary hormone involved in male sexual function?

A) Testosterone
B) Estrogen
C) Progesterone
D) Cortisol

Which of the following is considered a barrier method of contraception?

A) Condom
B) Oral contraceptive pill
C) Intrauterine device (IUD)
D) Hormonal implant

What is the primary emotional response commonly experienced during the initial stage of grief?

A) Denial
B) Anger
C) Depression
D) Acceptance

Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating the menstrual cycle in females?

A) Estrogen
B) Testosterone
C) Cortisol
D) Thyroxine

Which of the following is the final stage of the Kubler-Ross model of grief?

A) Acceptance
B) Bargaining
C) Depression
D) Anger

Which structure in the heart is responsible for initiating the heartbeat?

A) Sinoatrial (SA) node
B) Atrioventricular (AV) node
C) Bundle of His

What is the primary purpose of the cardiovascular system?

A) Digest food
B) Transport oxygen and nutrients
C) Regulate body temperature
D) Support immune function

What is the most common type of heart disease?

A) Coronary artery disease
B) Heart valve disease
C) Cardiomyopathy
D) Arrhythmias

What does the acronym CPR stand for?

A) Cardiac Pulmonary Rescue
B) Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
C) Cardiovascular Pressure Relief
D) Circulatory Pulse Regulation

Which of the following is a sign of congestive heart failure?

A) Rapid weight loss
B) Swelling in the legs and feet
C) Increased energy levels
D) Decreased urination

Which of the following is an inflammatory condition affecting the joints?

A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Osteoporosis
C) Osteoarthritis
D) Bursitis

What is a common complication of uncontrolled diabetes?

A) Kidney stones
B) Peripheral neuropathy
C) Hypertension
D) Liver cirrhosis

Which structure is responsible for the exchange of gases in the lungs?

A) Bronchi
B) Alveoli
C) Trachea
D) Diaphragm

What is the primary function of platelets in the blood?

A) Clotting
B) Oxygen transport
C) Fighting infections
D) Nutrient delivery

What is the term for the hardening and narrowing of the arteries?

A) Arteriosclerosis
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Hypertension
D) Angina pectoris

What does the term "musculoskeletal system" refer to?

A) Bones and muscles
B) Nervous and muscular systems
C) Muscles and tendons
D) Bones and cartilage

Which part of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body?

A) Right atrium
B) Right ventricle
C) Left atrium
D) Left ventricle

What is the most common cause of stroke?

A) Ischemia (lack of blood flow)
B) Hemorrhage (bleeding)
C) Aneurysm
D) Arteriovenous malformation

Which muscle is located at the back of the upper arm?

A) Biceps brachii
B) Triceps brachii
C) Deltoid
D) Pectoralis major

What is the primary role of ligaments in the body?

A) Connect bones to other bones
B) Connect muscles to bones
C) Facilitate movement
D) Protect organs

What type of tissue connects muscles to bones?

A) Cartilage
B) Tendons
C) Ligaments
D) Fascia

What is the purpose of a health assessment in nursing?

A) To prescribe medications
B) To diagnose diseases
C) To gather data for patient care
D) To determine patient preferences

What is the term for the sensation of spinning or dizziness?

A) Vertigo
B) Syncope
C) Ataxia
D) Nausea

Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of blood sugar levels?

A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Cortisol
D) Adrenaline

What is the term for the condition characterized by a prolonged inability to achieve or maintain an erection?

A) Erectile dysfunction
B) Premature ejaculation
C) Hypoactive sexual desire disorder
D) Anorgasmia

Which stage of grief is characterized by the denial of loss?

A) Denial
B) Anger
C) Bargaining
D) Acceptance

What type of joint allows for rotational movement?

A) Pivot joint
B) Hinge joint
C) Saddle joint
D) Ball-and-socket joint

What is the primary function of the diaphragm during respiration?

A) To expel air
B) To facilitate inhalation
C) To regulate heart rate
D) To control blood pressure

Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood away from the heart?

A) Arteries
B) Veins
C) Capillaries
D) Venules

What is the primary role of the cerebellum in the brain?

A) Coordination of movement
B) Memory processing
C) Emotional regulation
D) Sensory perception

What is the normal range for adult resting heart rate?

A) 60-100 beats per minute
B) 40-60 beats per minute
C) 100-120 beats per minute
D) 80-120 beats per minute

Which of the following is NOT a sign of dehydration?

A) Dry skin
B) Dark urine
C) Increased thirst
D) Clear urine

What is the primary cause of hypertension?

A) High sodium intake
B) Low potassium levels
C) Excessive fluid intake
D) High fiber intake

What is the primary symptom of a myocardial infarction (heart attack)?

A) Chest pain or discomfort
B) Shortness of breath
C) Nausea
D) Dizziness

What is the leading cause of death worldwide?

A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Cancer
C) Respiratory diseases
D) Diabetes

Which condition is characterized by the presence of pain in the chest?

A) Angina
B) Myocarditis
C) Pericarditis
D) Endocarditis

What is the term for a decrease in blood flow to the heart muscle?

A) Ischemia
B) Infarction
C) Hemorrhage
D) Stenosis

What condition is caused by the inflammation of the lungs?

A) COPD
B) Pneumonia
C) Bronchitis
D) Asthma

What is the term for the surgical procedure to remove the gallbladder?

A) Cholecystectomy
B) Appendectomy
C) Hepatectomy
D) Gastrectomy

Which part of the body is primarily affected by osteoarthritis?

A) Joints
B) Muscles
C) Bones
D) Cartilage

What is the primary risk factor for peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

A) Smoking
B) High cholesterol
C) Sedentary lifestyle
D) Diabetes

What type of cancer is characterized by the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the breast?

A) Breast cancer
B) Lung cancer
C) Colorectal cancer
D) Prostate cancer

Which condition is characterized by the inflammation of the pancreas?

A) Pancreatitis
B) Hepatitis
C) Cholecystitis
D) Gastroenteritis

What is the term for the loss of muscle mass and strength due to aging?

A) Osteoporosis
B) Sarcopenia
C) Cachexia
D) Myopathy

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A) Frequent exercise
B) Prolonged immobility
C) Healthy weight
D) Low blood pressure

What is the primary cause of hypoxia in the body?

A) Insufficient oxygen supply
B) Excess carbon dioxide
C) Poor circulation
D) Anemia

What is the most common type of stroke?

A) Ischemic stroke
B) Hemorrhagic stroke
C) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
D) Cryptogenic stroke

What type of tissue connects muscles to bones?

A) Cartilage
B) Tendons
C) Ligaments
D) Fascia

What is the purpose of a health assessment in nursing?

A) To prescribe medications
B) To diagnose diseases
C) To gather data for patient care
D) To determine patient preferences

What is the term for the sensation of spinning or dizziness?

A) Vertigo
B) Syncope
C) Ataxia
D) Nausea

Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of blood sugar levels?

A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Cortisol
D) Adrenaline

What is the term for the condition characterized by a prolonged inability to achieve or maintain an erection?

A) Erectile dysfunction
B) Premature ejaculation
C) Hypoactive sexual desire disorder
D) Anorgasmia

Which stage of grief is characterized by the denial of loss?

A) Denial
B) Anger
C) Bargaining
D) Acceptance

What type of joint allows for rotational movement?

A) Pivot joint
B) Hinge joint
C) Saddle joint
D) Ball-and-socket joint

What is the primary function of the diaphragm during respiration?

A) To expel air
B) To facilitate inhalation
C) To regulate heart rate
D) To control blood pressure

Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood away from the heart?

A) Arteries
B) Veins
C) Capillaries
D) Venules

What is the primary role of the cerebellum in the brain?

A) Coordination of movement
B) Memory processing
C) Emotional regulation
D) Sensory perception

What is the normal range for adult resting heart rate?

A) 60-100 beats per minute
B) 40-60 beats per minute
C) 80-120 beats per minute
D) 100-140 beats per minute

Which type of anemia is characterized by a deficiency of vitamin B12?

A) Pernicious anemia
B) Iron-deficiency anemia
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Hemolytic anemia

What is the most common cause of hypertension?

A) High sodium intake
B) Low potassium levels
C) Excessive fluid intake
D) High fiber intake

What is the primary symptom of a myocardial infarction (heart attack)?

A) Chest pain or discomfort
B) Shortness of breath
C) Nausea
D) Dizziness

What is the leading cause of death worldwide?

A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Cancer
C) Respiratory diseases
D) Diabetes

Which condition is characterized by the presence of pain in the chest?

A) Angina
B) Myocarditis
C) Pericarditis
D) Endocarditis

What is the term for a decrease in blood flow to the heart muscle?

A) Ischemia
B) Infarction
C) Hemorrhage
D) Stenosis

What condition is caused by the inflammation of the lungs?

A) COPD
B) Pneumonia
C) Bronchitis
D) Asthma

What is the term for the surgical procedure to remove the gallbladder?

A) Cholecystectomy
B) Appendectomy
C) Hepatectomy
D) Gastrectomy

Which part of the body is primarily affected by osteoarthritis?

A) Joints
B) Muscles
C) Bones
D) Cartilage

What is the primary risk factor for peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

A) Smoking
B) High cholesterol
C) Sedentary lifestyle
D) Diabetes

What type of cancer is characterized by the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the breast?

A) Breast cancer
B) Lung cancer
C) Colorectal cancer
D) Prostate cancer

Which condition is characterized by the inflammation of the pancreas?

A) Pancreatitis
B) Hepatitis
C) Cholecystitis
D) Gastroenteritis

What is the term for the loss of muscle mass and strength due to aging?

A) Osteoporosis
B) Sarcopenia
C) Cachexia
D) Myopathy

Which vitamin is essential for the synthesis of collagen?

A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin D
C) Vitamin E
D) Vitamin K

What is the most common cause of chronic venous insufficiency?

A) Deep vein thrombosis
B) Varicose veins
C) Poor circulation
D) Anemia

What is the most common type of stroke?

A) Ischemic stroke
B) Hemorrhagic stroke
C) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
D) Cryptogenic stroke

What is the term for a condition where the heart beats too fast?

A) Tachycardia
B) Bradycardia
C) Arrhythmia
D) Palpitations

What is the most common cause of heart failure?

A) Coronary artery disease
B) Hypertension
C) Diabetes
D) Valve disease

What is the main function of red blood cells?

A) Carry oxygen
B) Fight infections
C) Clot blood
D) Regulate body temperature

What is the medical term for high blood pressure?

A) Hypotension
B) Hypertension
C) Prehypertension
D) Normotension

Which of the following is a sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A) Swelling in one leg
B) Chest pain
C) Shortness of breath
D) Nausea

What is the term for an abnormal heartbeat rhythm?

A) Bradycardia
B) Tachycardia
C) Arrhythmia
D) Atrial fibrillation

What does an echocardiogram assess?

A) Heart structure and function
B) Blood pressure
C) Cholesterol levels
D) Lung function

Which medication is commonly prescribed to lower cholesterol levels?

A) Aspirin
B) Statins
C) Beta-blockers
D) ACE inhibitors

What lifestyle change is most effective for reducing the risk of heart disease?

A) Regular exercise
B) Increased sugar intake
C) Smoking cessation
D) Decreased water intake

What is the primary purpose of cardiac rehabilitation?

A) To improve cardiovascular fitness after heart events
B) To reduce body weight
C) To increase muscle mass
D) To prevent diabetes