Quiz 1

1. Instruments with lumens should be soaked in a horizontal position:

A. True
B. False

2. The mechanical process by which an ultrasonic cleaner works is called cavitation:

A. True
B. False

3. To prevent aerosols, items should be brushed below the surface of the water:

A. True
B. False

4. Automatic washers clean using a spray-force action called impingement:

A. True
B. False

5. Instruments received from Surgery and tagged for repair do not need to be cleaned until they come back from repair:

A. True
B. False

6. Powered surgical instruments should be cleaned using a mechanical cleaning process:

A. True
B. False

7. There are currently no methods available to verify cleaning process outcomes:

A. True
B. False

8. Infectious medical waste is regulated by the EPA:

A. True
B. False

9. Horizontal work surfaces in the decontamination area should be cleaned and disinfected once per day:

A. True
B. False

10. PPE should be changed immediately if it becomes soaked with blood or other infectious material:

A. True
B. False

11. What is the preferred pH for detergents used for most cleaning processes?

A. Low pH
B. High pH
C. Neutral pH
D. It depends on the water temperature and exposure time.

12. Which of the following is an example of regulated medical waste?

A. Discarded sterilization wraps
B. Blood-soaked sponges
C. Used copier toner cartridges
D. General trash from the surgery department

13. Which of the following statements about the use of mechanical washers is NOT true?

A. Multi-level trays should be separated
B. Trays with lids should be opened
C. Instruments should be disassembled and opened
D. All items should be washed on the same cycle

14. Water must be degassed each time the ultrasonic cleaner's tank is changed, because:

A. Excess bubbles from filling reduce the energy of the cavitation process
B. Excess bubbles reduce the effectiveness of the detergent
C. Excess bubbles decrease the temperature of the tank
D. Excess bubbles make it difficult to see items being cleaned

15. Specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against a hazard is called:

A. Restricted Apparel
B. Safety Apparel
C. Hazard Equipment
D. Personal Protective Equipment

16. Written cleaning instructions for surgical instruments should be provided by:

A. The mechanical washer manufacturer
B. The instrument manufacturer
C. The detergent manufacturer
D. The healthcare facility

17. Pyrogens:

A. Are fever-producing substances
B. Are microorganisms that have survived sterilization
C. Cause CJD
D. Are soiled particles

18. Softened water:

A. Increases the likelihood of mineral scale deposits
B. Decreases the likelihood of mineral scale deposits
C. Is not compatible with detergents
D. Can cause rusting of metal substances

19. The desired solution for cleaning instruments is:

A. Soap
B. Steam
C. A disinfectant
D. A detergent

20. These are used to breakdown fatty tissue on instruments:

A. Protease enzymes
B. Lipase enzymes
C. Amylase enzymes
D. Neutral pH cleaners

21. To prevent coagulation of proteins, water temperature should be:

A. Below 43°C (110°F)
B. Above 43°C (110°F)
C. Below 100°C (212°F)
D. Below 24°C (75°F)

22. Instrument lubrication is performed:

A. Immediately before use
B. After sterilization
C. After cleaning
D. Before cleaning

23. Aluminum items should be cleaned:

A. Using a circular motion
B. Using a to and fro motion with the grain
C. Using a stiff metal brush
D. Using a water spray

24. Powered surgical instruments:

A. Cannot be immersed
B. Can be immersed
C. Should be cleaned at the point of use
D. Should be cleaned using a mechanical washer

25. The use of heat to kill microorganisms, except spores:

A. Sterilization
B. Thermal Disinfection

26. Detergents used in mechanical cleaners should be:

A. Low alkaline
B. Low acid
C. Low temperature
D. Low foaming

27. Compounds that contain a positive electrical charge and exhibit germicidal properties:

A. Cationic
B. Anionic

28. A chemical which kills most pathogenic organisms, but does not kill spores:

A. Antiseptic
B. Disinfectant

29. A solution which inhibits the growth of bacteria. It is usually used topically and only on animate objects:

A. Antiseptic
B. Disinfectant

30. The length of time a disinfectant can be properly stored after which it must be discarded:

A. Use life
B. Shelf life

31. Compounds that have a negative electrical charge and form a large group of synthetic detergents:

A. Cationic
B. Anionic

32. The destruction of nearly all pathogenic microorganisms on an inanimate surface:

A. Sterilization
B. Disinfection

33. Relating to the destruction of bacteria:

A. Bactericidal
B. Sterilization

34. The length of time (or number of uses) after which the efficiency of a disinfectant is diminished:

A. Shelf life
B. Use life

35. A process by which all forms of microbial life are destroyed:

A. Sterilization
B. Disinfection

36. The use of heat to kill all microorganisms, except spores, is called:

A. Sterilization
B. Thermal Disinfection
C. High-Level Disinfection
D. Mechanical Disinfection

37. These chemicals are used on animate (living tissue) to slow the growth of microorganisms:

A. Glutaraldehydes
B. Disinfectants
C. Halogens
D. Antiseptics

38. Items that are introduced directly into the bloodstream or other normally sterile areas of the body are classified as:

A. Critical Items
B. Semi-Critical Items
C. Non-Critical Items
D. Equipment

39. The process by which all forms of microorganisms are completely destroyed is called:

A. High-level disinfection
B. Thermal disinfection
C. Sterilization
D. Chemical disinfection

40. Iodophors are a member of this disinfectant family:

A. Halogens
B. Quaternary Ammonium Compounds
C. Alcohol
D. Phenolics

41. Phenolics are classified as:

A. Intermediate to low-level disinfectants
B. Intermediate to high-level disinfectants
C. High-level disinfectants
D. Sterilants

42. Which of the following are classified as high-level disinfectants?

A. Glutaraldehyde and OPA
B. Glutaraldehyde and Phenolics
C. Quaternary Ammonium Compounds and Phenolics
D. Halogens and OPA

43. Thermal disinfection is accomplished using:

A. Heated chemicals
B. Heated glutaraldehyde
C. Prolonged high pressure steam
D. Heated water

44. How long must alcohol remain in wet contact with an item to achieve a reasonable level of disinfection?

A. 3 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 20 minutes

45. Which of the following would be the best choice for high-level disinfection of instruments?

A. Phenolics
B. Chlorine
C. Iodophors
D. OPA

46. Items need to be cleaned before they are sterilized, but they do need to be cleaned before they are disinfected.

A. True
B. False

47. When liquid chemicals are labeled as both a high-level disinfectant and a sterilant, the time required to achieve sterilization is no longer than the time required to achieve high-level disinfection.

A. True
B. False

48. Mechanical washers and washer-decontaminators are regulated by the CDC.

A. True
B. False

49. All liquid disinfectants are capable of sterilization if their exposure time is increased.

A. True
B. False

50. Log books should be maintained when using Glutaraldehyde and OPA.

A. True
B. False

51. Microgrind, or Supercut Scissors are usually identified with a black handle.

A. True
B. False

52. Stainless Steel jaw needleholders last longer than Tungsten Carbide jaw needleholders.

A. True
B. False

53. The place where the two parts of a ring handled instrument meet and pivot is called the box lock.

A. True
B. False

54. Instruments are heat treated to give their surface a mirror (shiny) finish.

A. True
B. False

55. Tissue forceps have teeth.

A. True
B. False

56. During instrument manufacture, the process of passivation helps build a protective chromium oxide layer on each instrument's surface.

A. True
B. False

57. The part of a hemostat that locks and holds it in position is called the box lock.

A. True
B. False

58. Laser-finished instruments are coated with a durable protective finish that cannot be chipped or scratched.

A. True
B. False

59. When assembling an instrument set, heavier instruments should be placed on top of the lighter ones to hold them in place.

A. True
B. False

60. After applying instrument identification tape, instruments should be autoclaved to help the tape bond to the instrument.

A. True
B. False

61. Instrument marking tape should be wrapped approximately BLANK around the instrument.

A. 1 to 1½
B. 1½ to 2
C. 2 to 2½
D. 2½ to 3

62. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable form of instrument marking?

A. Laser-etching
B. Acid-base etching
C. Electric etching (engraving)
D. Heat-fused nylon

63. The purpose of a suction stylet is to:

A. Unclog the suction during surgery
B. Clean the suction in the decontamination area
C. Facilitate the sterilization process
D. Provide a measuring guide for the surgeon

64. Kerrison Laminectomy Ronguers should be tested using:

A. Tissue paper
B. A plastic dowel rod
C. Rubber testing material
D. An index card

65. Scissors with Tungsten Carbide cutting edges are usually identified by:

A. Black handles
B. Silver handles
C. Gold handles
D. The letters "TC"

66. Used to repair and reconstruct teeth and jawbones.

A. Dermabraider
B. Dental drill

67. Used in ear surgery and for driving very small wires through the bone.

A. Cebatome
B. Micro Drill

68. Used in open heart surgery.

A. Sternal Saw
B. Micro Drill

69. Used to remove cement.

A. Dermatome
B. Cebatome

70. Used to harvest skin grafts and reshape skin surfaces.

A. Dermatome/Dermabraider
B. Micro Drill

71. Used to perform specific cutting actions such as reciprocating or oscillating.

A. Drill
B. Saw

72. Allows for visual inspection of the lower part of the large intestine.

A. Sigmoidoscope
B. Colonoscope

73. Allows for visual inspection of the upper digestive tract.

A. Gastroscope
B. Bronchoscope

74. Used to visualize the urethra and bladder.

A. Cystoscope
B. Hysteroscope

75. Used to visualize the tracheobronchial tree.

A. Tracheoscope
B. Bronchoscope

76. Used to visualize the entire large intestine.

A. Sigmoidoscope
B. Colonoscope

77. Leak testing should be performed on each flexible endoscope annually.

A. True
B. False

78. Loaner instruments trays that are received sterile from other facilities do not need to be decontaminated and resterilized before use.

A. True
B. False

79. Endoscope channels should be cleaned and then left moist for storage.

A. True
B. False

80. Powered surgical instruments have one of three power sources; electricity, air, or battery.

A. True
B. False

81. Modern powered surgical instruments are immersible.

A. True
B. False

82. Laparoscopic instrument insulation failure can cause burns.

A. True
B. False

83. The purpose of a decontamination battery is to protect PSIs from fluid invasion.

A. True
B. False

84. Dental Drills are used to remove cement.

A. True
B. False

85. Automatic endoscope reprocessors are not recommended for flexible endoscopes.

A. True
B. False

86. The first step to inspect the insulation of a laparoscopic instrument is to:

A. Check the collar at the distal tip
B. Try to slide the insulation back
C. Check the handle for chipping or cracking
D. Visually check the instrument's shaft

87. Which of the following steps happens first when processing flexible endoscopes?

A. Leak-testing
B. High-level disinfecting/sterilizing
C. Manual cleaning
D. Drying

88. Which of the following should be used to thoroughly rinse (remove) all traces of disinfectant from an endoscope's channels?

A. Forced air
B. Water containing approved sterilant
C. Filtered water
D. A heated glutaraldehyde

89. The purpose of using a decontamination battery or cord when cleaning powered surgical instruments is:

A. To keep fluid from entering the unit
B. To keep functioning batteries and cords clean
C. To prevent electrical shock
D. To test the unit while cleaning

90. Endoscopes are often processed in a mechanical unit called:

A. An ultrasonic cleaner
B. A washer-decontaminator
C. A flush-pulse endoscope reprocessor
D. An automatic endoscope reprocessor

91. The endoscope that would be dispensed for a procedure that required visualization of the lower part of the large intestine would be a:

A. Colonoscope
B. Sigmoidoscope
C. Gastroscope
D. Ureteroscope

92. Loaner instruments should:

A. Be decontaminated if they appear soiled upon arrival
B. Be sterilized using a low temperature process
C. Be decontaminated before use
D. Not be used

93. Information regarding cleaning processes for endoscopes should be provided by:

A. The SGNA
B. APIC
C. The instrument manufacturer
D. The operating room staff

94. Which of the following statements about endoscopes is true?

A. Not all endoscopes can be processed in an AER
B. Ultrasonic cleaning is the process of choice for endoscopes
C. Flexible endoscopes are not easily damaged
D. All endoscopes should be steam sterilized

95. Electronic testing of laparoscopic insulation should be done:

A. In the decontamination area prior to cleaning
B. In the clean assembly area prior to set assembly
C. At the factory or onsite repair unit
D. In the operating room at the end of the procedure

96. Loaner instrumentation poses storage and workload challenges.

A. True
B. False

97. Flexible endoscopes that fail a leak test may continue to be used until the break/hole impacts the scope's function.

A. True
B. False

98. All flexible endoscopes have internal channels.

A. True
B. False

99. After use, loaner instrumentation must be decontaminated before it is shipped out.

A. True
B. False

100. The biggest advantage to battery-powered surgical instruments is that they can be immersed for cleaning.

A. True
B. False